It's not completely clear how precisely this happened, but -- as mentioned earlier -- the (lack of) morphology and (rigid) syntax of modern English implies a process of creolization, with French/Latin as the superstratum and older forms of English as the substratum (high-frequency words, for instance, and thus remnants of ablaut conjugation). Professional linguists are constantly emphasizing this point when they design the classifications for the Germanic and Romance language groups. Some user questions on Quora give estimates of around 60%, although it is hard to tell where they got this estimate. Paschalis should be happy! On the other hand, English is a West Germanic language ( a branch of Indo-European languages) that was first spoken in early medieval England and is now the most widely used language in the world (Mydans,2007). When the Germanic peoples decided that they wanted those areas back, things were messy. Is it a Germanic or a Romance Language? nor are the numerals, nor conjunctions, nor prepositions nor lots of basic nouns, adjectives and verbs. claims that only about 10% of Latin has made its way into English without the assistance of intermediary languages like French, which is an actual Romance language. What also needs to be kept in mind is that English, especially from the period between the loss of the French territories and the Latin scholarship craze, was internally very inventive, with authors creating new words that passed into the general vocabulary by the hundreds. Notable differences I can think of: Romance languages have much more complex conjugation of verbs. Although verbal loans from many languages have been adopted in English, Latin is the only language which has affected English verbally. But “Opfer” itself also has a Latin origin. Examples include German, English, Swedish and Norwegian. Some even adhere to the Middle English Creole Hypothesis wherein English underwent a simplification between Old English and Middle English. This is a key reason that German has so many basic terms spelled exactly the same as in English (the vast majority being fellow Latin-based loanwords: If anything, an even more “smoking gun” refutation of the claim that English is uniquely Germanic-Romance hybridized is the existence of so many realms of discourse where the supposedly “more Germanic” German uses a Latin-based term while the “more Romance” English relies on a Germanic equivalent: German Fenster (window), schreiben (to write), kurz (short), rasieren (to shave), Körper (body), Kopf (head), Scharnier (hinge), Schüssel (bowl), spazieren (to take a walk), kaufen (to buy), verkaufen (to sell), einkaufen (to shop), kämpfen (to fight), sauber (clean), Dusche (shower), Aktien (stocks), both Eimer and Kübel (bucket), fehlen (to be missing), Fehler (mistake), Pleitenserie (losing streak), dauern (to last), Drache (kite), Kummer (sorrow), Panne (mishap), Partie (sports match), Tastatur (keyboard), Taille (waist), Rolle (pulley), Frikadelle (meatball), passieren (happen), Zettel (a sheet, as of paper), Pferd (horse) and many others. Three is native Germanic; tri- is a later borrowing from Latin. So, even if lexical influence could be considered a deep linguistic influence, the influence of Latin is still arguably weaker than what most people think. This reality can also be something that we are going to prove or our view point towards the reality. It is easy to consider English differently on this basis – but then it is not how languages are often classified. In short, there just isn’t really a sound argument to make for English being a “Germanic-Romance hybrid” unless we make the same case for German and Dutch, and it’s unlikely this would ever pass muster with professional linguists. hence: hallucination. I looked into whether or not Latin influenced the function words of English as well to see if any Latin function words, like conjunctions, made it into English because that would be a sign that it does have a deeper influence. History of the English Language at the U of S - Fact: All natural human languages are complex. We are researchers, we doubt the obvious, the dogmas and that's how any science progresses. Some French influence continued for the next 4 or so centuries. See work by Charles-James N. Bailey. The 11th Century Norman Invasion is where most of the Romance language influence comes from. The answer is likely similar to the question of what distinguishes a dialect from a language - a language has an army. What are your suggestions? The following data should be considered: After the aboriginal contact, the Germanic tribes speaking one language spread out across northern and Central Europe. language 1444685259 2015-10-12 21:27:39 2:27 UCnh0m94NtVo8vp_V-zVS36Q MasterWord Services, Inc. Issued also as inaugural dissertation, Bonn.,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,, In Brown Corpus, the most frequently used word “the” composes 7% of the total word occurrences with 69,971 times per one million word tokens; the second highest word “of” occurs 36,411 times which is nearly the half of the frequency of “the”. To completely avoid splitting them would be a waste of this added flexibility granted by the English language. Same for the Dutch, who sorta* got that English name from confusion with the Germans. Michael Halliday, the main figure in the systemic functional grammar movement which transverses more than just English in fact emphasises this point. Traditionally, say for Old English, it is obviously Germanic, with Germanic and Scandinavian influences on grammar, phonology and lexis. Web. So it seems that modern English has been much civilized by Latin and French and has become, after all, a substantial Anglo-Saxon repast turned spicy gourmet feast thanks to its one-quarter Romance vocabulary. evolved from a common 'forebear' language, called, for lack of a better word, 'Proto-Germanic'. Modern English did not organically evolve form Anglo-Saxon, the language that is being described above. There is also a more limited range of words used, which cuts down the number of single-appearance words in a corpus greatly. This leads to another point, in that traditional and more theoretical grammar systems (eg. But American newspapers and magazines have shown an increase in the use of English words derived from Romance languages over the period 1705 to the present, to the point where 20th and 21st century news writing uses roughly half-Germanic, half-Romantic vocabularies. How can I convert 96 DPI image to 300 Dpi as per Journal requirement? It's probably neither Germanic nor Romance. The fact that English has a lot of loan-words from medieval Norman French does not make it a Romance language. The influence of Latin on English grammar though, is even shallower. How much of a language has to be replaced? And, as noted, refers only to American English. However, we know that the Norman invasion introduced French words and suffixes, etc. All rights reserved. Die deutsche Mundartforschung in ihrer Bedeutung für den englischen Unterricht, From Latin to Linguistic Confusion to English: Language Shifts in Philosophy. Published material in the United States in general was dominated by white men, with much less access by women and African Americans to establishment journalism and publishing houses. As far as I see English language is a West Germanic language with lots of verbal influences from Latin. There is not any way in which French evolved into English—in that sentence, the only Romance word is ‘evolve.’. Nebi, you are generally right about these things, but there are a couple of things that should be kept in mind. It is true that English has a large body of vocabulary originating from Latin, but what determines the family that a language belongs to is its structure; it terms of its structure, English has relatively little in common with Romance languages. A computer analysis from 1973 by Dieter Wolff and Thomas Finkenstaedt places the percentage at 28% (cited in Kellerman and O’Conner). Language contact doesn't change the family tree relationship of a given language, but a language can be significantly restructured as a result of areal contact. English infinitives, as we can see, can be split perfectly fine. but that's again quite irrelevant. Not having fully read the other answers, but skimming them, one thing that is very important is that your question is not in a great format. The reason for the phonetic differences in such lexical doublets is this: In the history of the development of IE into several daughter languages, several major phonetic changes occurring in Germanic which did not occur in Latin (these are called Grimm's Law). It's a widespread misconception. Wes, all agreed, except the French played a relatively trivial role in the 30 Years War. I couldn't agree more. . The five most widely spoken Romance languages by number of native speakers are Spanish (480 million), Portuguese (255 million), French (77 million), Italian (65 million), and Romanian (24 million). Then there is what is either a sideshow or part of the main war, the Dutch war of independence from Habsburg Spain. "Young man, I say unto thee, arise!" Yet linguists unequivocally classify the Filipino languages as members of the Austronesian language family, not as “Austronesian-Romance hybrids.” Given the far-reaching but still more limited impact of French on the Germanic languages, even when restricting ourselves to lexical analysis (e.g. However, lexical influence is the shallowest level at which a language can influence another because it is easy to take a word from another language and to incorporate it into our own. © 2008-2020 ResearchGate GmbH. This is a little quiz to test your abilities to discern words from Germanic, Latin, Greek or Celtic origin in English. And by 1998, there is clearly too much data to use, and a subset needs to be taken. What are the new and current trends in English Language Teaching and Learning Research? a) Words for many Mediterranean foodstuffs: oleum, butirum, olive, caseus (cheese/kase-- replacing the Germanic yustas/ost), piper, kitchen from coquina, panna>pan, cuppa>cup, discas>dish, kaula for cabbage (cf. English language has a germanic morphology and structure, but most of the vocabulary is derived from Latin, via French, which is a romance language. Your valuable and easy to understand answers will help me a lot in my research design. Anyone please tell me if I am right about the two philosophical divisions? My answer is too long to fit into a comment box here -- several sections over multiple pages -- but I've written it to be both clear-cut and definitive, to address all possible angles and major questions surrounding this topic. Hope this helps a bit. All of these pairs are examples of lexical doublets in modern English. are Spanish-derived. A further point relating to the origins of English, when indeed there was creolisation going on, for centuries, there is a strong school of thought often sourcednto researchers in central and Eastern Europe (and Finland of all places!!) I've been queried a good deal about this topic since my prior post and wanted to fill in some blanks, so I'm basically responding broadly to everyone who's contacted me in the interim. On the other hand, if your data look like a  cloud, your R2 drops to 0.0 and your p-value rises. I agree with Wojciech Żełaniec - what matters in typologization is morphology and grammar. The Roman alphabet that this blog post and almost literally everything English speakers read is written in is also due to Latin. Ironically, it seems that there was grammatical competition with basilectic Celtic languages, resulting in a greater tendency towards regularization of grammar (eg helping to get rid of lots of verb conjugation and noun declension issues) even though there is almost no lexical trace of Celtic tongues left in English. In other words, there is nothing you can do to turn English into a Romance language because we know that it came from a separate branch of the language tree which was distinct from Latin (Old Germanic or proto-Germanic, or whatever). Compare the English "I/they/we/you go, he/she goes, he/she is going, I am going, they/we/you are going" to the complexity of the French verb "aller" and you'll see what I meanIn Germanic languages you reverse the order of the sentence in order to ask a question. This results in an increased use of Germanic words, as they are shorter in general. This holds true even if the details of the borrowings vary and the different West and North Germanic languages—for structural reasons—often make very different use of this Greco-Latin lexical superstratum in relation to their native Germanic core wordstocks. And there has also been some massive shifts in the frequency of use of many words in the corpus based on changes in culture and technology. English has few words borrowed from German (Blitzkrieg, Weltschmerz, Weltanschauung, Kraut maybe, what else?) Guidelines for new researchers and PhD applicants. If your mother tongue is a Romance or Germanic language other than English, it should be easier than if you are a native speaker of English or if your mother tongue is neither Romance nor Germanic.
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